Class 9 Important Biology MCQs (All Chapters) – Free PDF

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Class 9 Biology MCQS

Biology – 9th Class

High-Scoring MCQs Bank (350 + Questions)

1. Which branch of Biology focuses on the study of the structure and function of cells?

  • A. Cytology
  • B. Microbiology
  • C. Histology
  • D. Ecology

2. The study of the processes of heredity and variation in living organisms is known as:

  • A. Ecology
  • B. Genetics
  • C. Anatomy
  • D. Embryology

3. Heart pumps blood, stomach digests food and kidneys excrete wastes. The statement comes from:

  • A. Physiology
  • B. Anatomy
  • C. Morphology
  • D. Histology

4. Which branch of Biology involves the study of the classification of organisms?

  • A. Taxonomy
  • B. Physiology
  • C. Palaeontology
  • D. Biogeography

5. Study of internal physical structure of organisms is called:

  • A. Anatomy
  • B. Physiology
  • C. Embryology
  • D. Genetics

6. The examination of fossils helps scientists to know the:

  • A. The age of earth
  • B. About climate
  • C. Evolutionary history
  • D. About drugs

7. The microscopic study of tissues:

  • A. Ecology
  • B. Histology
  • C. Anatomy
  • D. Embryology

8. Study of diseases, their causes and effects is called:

  • A. Immunology
  • B. Pathology
  • C. Pharmacology
  • D. Palaeontology

9. The study of the transmission of characteristics from parents to offspring is called:

  • A. Biotechnology
  • B. Genetics
  • C. Geology
  • D. Information technology

10. Meaning of “logos” is:

  • A. Activity
  • B. Structure
  • C. Thinking
  • D. Physiology

11. Coral reef support a wide variety of:

  • A. Marine biology
  • B. Histology
  • C. Both
  • D. None of these

12. The branch deal with the study of form and structure of living organisms is called:

  • A. Cell biology
  • B. Physiology
  • C. Morphology
  • D. Genetics

13. In which sura Allah say about creation of man?

  • A. Sura-Ambia
  • B. Sura-Rehman
  • C. Sura Al-omionon
  • D. All of these

14. Which step comes between making hypothesis and doing experiments?

  • A. Making deductions
  • B. Making observations
  • C. Summarizing results
  • D. Analysing data

15. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the scientific method?

  • A. It relies on evidence
  • B. It involves formulating hypotheses
  • C. Hypothesis will always be correct
  • D. It requires rigorous testing

16. Choose the correct sequence of steps of scientific method:

  • A. Observations – hypothesis – deduction – experiments
  • B. Observations – hypothesis – law – theory
  • C. Hypothesis – observations – deduction – experiments
  • D. law – theory – deduction – observations

17. Experiments are very important in scientific method because a researcher…

  • A. Always gets correct results
  • B. Disproves many hypotheses and gets some hypotheses proved
  • C. Is sure that he will prove the hypotheses
  • D. Gets a chance to work in the laboratory

18. Identifying and defining a problem that scientists wants to investigate through scientific inquiry:

  • A. Recognition of a problem
  • B. Observation
  • C. Hypothesis
  • D. Deduction

19. Tentative answer of scientific problem is called:

  • A. Observation
  • B. Hypothesis
  • C. Deduction
  • D. Experiment

20. For biological research, scientific method is called:

  • A. Scientific method
  • B. Biological method
  • C. Deduction
  • D. Observation

21. Number of steps of biological method are:

  • A. Four
  • B. Five
  • C. Six
  • D. Seven

22. Sense organs are…in numbers:

  • A. Five
  • B. Six
  • C. Seven
  • D. Eight

23. Logical results of hypothesis are called:

  • A. Deduction
  • B. Experiments
  • C. Hypothesis
  • D. Observations

24. The most basic step of biological method is:

  • A. Experimentation
  • B. Observation
  • C. Deduction
  • D. Hypothesis

25. A good hypothesis must be:

  • A. Proven right
  • B. Complex
  • C. Testable and potentially falsifiable
  • D. Based in a single observation

26. The scientific method in which biological problems are solved is termed as:

  • A. Physical method
  • B. Biological method
  • C. Chemical method
  • D. Statistical method

27. Following are the characteristics of a good hypothesis, EXCEPT:

  • A. Should be a complex statement
  • B. Should be a tentative data
  • C. Should be testable
  • D. Should agree with available observations

28. Which of the following is essential skill for biologist?

  • A. Data analysis
  • B. Observation
  • C. Experimentation
  • D. All of these

29. What is supported by extensive evidence and have been repeatedly validated by multiple researches and studies:

  • A. Observation
  • B. Hypothesis
  • C. Theory
  • D. Law

30. A scientific law is a uniform:

  • A. Repeated approval by experiments
  • B. Constant fact of nature
  • C. Both A and B
  • D. A new hypothesis

31. When new hypothesis is again proved by experiments, the original hypothesis becomes a:

  • A. Theory
  • B. Law
  • C. Principle
  • D. None

32. When new hypotheses are again proved by experiments, the original hypothesis becomes a:

  • A. Law
  • B. Theory
  • C. Example
  • D. None of these

33. The international biodiversity day is:

  • A. 21st May
  • B. 22nd May
  • C. 21st June
  • D. 22nd June

34. Which of the following help to regulate the climate:

  • A. Amoeba
  • B. Protozoa
  • C. Algae
  • D. Bacteria

35. Out of total kinds of organisms, how many are the kinds of plants?

  • A. 0.5 million
  • B. 1 million
  • C. 1.5 million
  • D. 2 million

36. The branch of biology which deals with classification is:

  • A. Taxonomy
  • B. Systematic
  • C. Botany
  • D. Genetics

37. How many types of organisms have biologists named and classified?

  • A. 1 Million
  • B. 2 Million
  • C. 4 Million
  • D. 6 Million

38. Which of the following taxonomic ranks represents the broadest rank?

  • A. Species
  • B. Genus
  • C. Kingdom
  • D. Domain

39. Who devised the Linnaean system of taxonomic ranks in 1735:

  • A. Darwin
  • B. Carl Linnaeus
  • C. Mendel
  • D. Ronald Ross

40. Which rank was added to the taxonomic ranks in 1977:

  • A. Domain
  • B. Kingdom
  • C. Phylum
  • D. Class

41. The highest taxonomic rank is:

  • A. Domain
  • B. Kingdom
  • C. Phylum
  • D. Class

42. The most specific level of classification:

  • A. Order
  • B. Class
  • C. Genus
  • D. Species

43. The order of fruit fly is:

  • A. Insecta
  • B. Diptera
  • C. Drosophila
  • D. Drosophila

44. The human belongs to which family:

  • A. Primates
  • B. Hominidae
  • C. Fabales
  • D. Fabaceae

45. What is the genus of pea:

  • A. Fabales
  • B. Fabaceae
  • C. Pisum
  • D. P. Sativum

46. Who is considered the father of modern taxonomy?

  • A. Albert Einstein
  • B. Gregor Mednel
  • C. Charles Darwin
  • D. Carl Linnaeus

47. Which one is the basic unit of classification?

  • A. Kingdom
  • B. Phylum
  • C. Class
  • D. Species

48. Rank that includes related genera:

  • A. Family
  • B. Order
  • C. Class
  • D. Phylum

49. Which characteristics is unique to organisms in the domain Archaea?

  • A. Cell walls made of peptidoglycan
  • B. Presence of a nucleus
  • C. Ability to live in extreme environments
  • D. Lack of ribosomes

50. Which of these statements is NOT related to bacteria?

  • A. Do not have a nucleus
  • B. Cell wall made of peptidoglycan
  • C. Most are heterotrophic
  • D. Have chlorophyll in their chloroplast

51. Which of these organisms belongs to the domain Eukarya?

  • A. Escherichia coli
  • B. Yeast
  • C. Coronavirus
  • D. None of these

52. Which organism produce oxygen during photosynthesis:

  • A. Archaea
  • B. Bacteria
  • C. Plants
  • D. Both A and C

53. Which of the following cells are larger and contain more complex structures?

  • A. Archaea cells
  • B. Bacterial cells
  • C. Eukarya cells
  • D. None of these

54. The cells of which domain containing nucleus and other membrane bound organelles:

  • A. Archaea
  • B. Bacteria
  • C. Eukarya
  • D. All

55. The parasite Entamoeba hystolytica causes:

  • A. Malaria
  • B. Amebiotic dysentery
  • C. Sleeping sickness
  • D. None of these

56. Protozoans are:

  • A. Heterotrophic
  • B. Ingest food
  • C. Have cell wall
  • D. Both A and B

57. Which domain include Prokaryotic organism that are thermophilic and halophilic?

  • A. Bacteria
  • B. Archaea
  • C. Eukarya
  • D. Protista

58. Cell wall of Bacteria made up of:

  • A. Cellulose
  • B. Chitin
  • C. Peptidoglycan
  • D. None of the above

59. Which kingdom includes organisms that are primarily unicellular, eukaryotic, and often heterotrophic?

  • A. Archaea
  • B. Protista
  • C. Fungi
  • D. Plantae

60. Why are fungi included in heterotrophic organisms?

  • A. Have chitin in cell wall
  • B. Absorb nutrients
  • C. Reproduce by spores
  • D. Cannot prepare food

61. Who classified organisms into two groups i.e. plants and animals:

  • A. Aristotle
  • B. Abu Usman Umar Al-Jahiz
  • C. Andrea Caesalpinia
  • D. Tournefort

62. Plant like protists are called:

  • A. Algae
  • B. Protozoa
  • C. Fungi
  • D. Eubacteria

63. The organisms of which kingdom are eukaryotic, heterotrophic organisms:

  • A. Kingdom Protista
  • B. Kingdom Fungi
  • C. Kingdom Plantae
  • D. Kingdom Animalia

64. The organisms of which kingdom are autotrophs:

  • A. Kingdom Protista
  • B. Kingdom Fungi
  • C. Kingdom Plantae
  • D. Kingdom Animalia

65. Cell wall of Plants made up of:

  • A. Cellulose
  • B. Chitin
  • C. Peptidoglycan
  • D. Lipids

66. Antibiotic that derived from Fungi is:

  • A. Penicillin
  • B. Siphonariidae
  • C. Tetra cyclone
  • D. Aspirin

67. Cell of Fungi made up of:

  • A. Chitin
  • B. Cellulose
  • C. Peptidoglycan
  • D. Lipids

68. Sleeping sickness disease is caused by:

  • A. Entamoeba
  • B. Plasmodium
  • C. Trypanosoma
  • D. All of the above

69. Viruses consists of:

  • A. DNA
  • B. RNA
  • C. Protein coat
  • D. All

70. Viroids are acellular particles composed of:

  • A. RNA
  • B. DNA
  • C. Proteins
  • D. All

71. Coronavirus identified in late 2019 in:

  • A. Wuhan
  • B. Shanghai
  • C. Shenzhen
  • D. Hong Kong

72. COVID-19 is a pandemic of:

  • A. Digestive illness
  • B. Respiratory illness
  • C. Circulatory illness
  • D. Excretory illness

73. Which of the following includes in the symptoms of COVID-19:

  • A. Fever
  • B. Cough
  • C. Fatigue
  • D. All

74. Which one is acellular?

  • A. Bacteria
  • B. Fungi
  • C. Cyanobacteria
  • D. Viruses

75. Viruses are assigned to the kingdoms:

  • A. Plantae
  • B. Protista
  • C. Fungi
  • D. Not include in any kingdom

76. The common characteristics of viruses, prions and viroids is:

  • A. Respiration
  • B. Protista
  • C. Infectious nature
  • D. Excretion

77. Which character of viruses make their resemblance with living organisms?

  • A. They can be crystallized
  • B. They can not live outside host body
  • C. They contain DNA and RNA
  • D. All of the above

78. In the scientific name first part refers to:

  • A. Class
  • B. Order
  • C. Genus
  • D. Species

79. The system of scientific naming of organisms is called:

  • A. Biodiversity
  • B. Classification
  • C. Domain
  • D. Binomial Nomenclature

80. Who was the founder of the scientific naming system of organisms:

  • A. Aristotle
  • B. Carolus Linnaeus
  • C. Ibn Rushd
  • D. Abi Ali Sina

81. The scientific name of tiger is:

  • A. Allium cepa
  • B. Solanum tuberosum
  • C. Apis cerana
  • D. Panthera Tigris

82. Scientific name of tomato is:

  • A. Solanum tuberosum
  • B. Solanum esculentum
  • C. Apis cerana
  • D. Panthera Tigris

83. At the time of printing of a scientific name it should be typed in:

  • A. Italics
  • B. Bold letters
  • C. Underlined
  • D. Can be write in any way

84. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by:

  • A. Aristotle
  • B. Carolus Linnaeus
  • C. Darwin
  • D. R.H Whittaker

85. Scientific name of onion is:

  • A. Bauhinia cepa
  • B. Allium cepa
  • C. Bauhinia rebens
  • D. Oryza sativa

86. The scientific name of human being:

  • A. Homo sapiens
  • B. Pisum sativum
  • C. Amanita muscaria
  • D. E.coli

87. What are the two parts of binomial nomenclature?

  • A. Genus and family
  • B. Species and Kingdom
  • C. Genus and Species
  • D. Phylum and Class

88. Which one is the basic unit of life:

  • A. Atom
  • B. Molecule
  • C. Cell
  • D. Tissue

89. The building blocks of living organisms are:

  • A. Atoms
  • B. Molecules
  • C. Cells
  • D. Tissues

90. Which of the following organelles have double membrane:

  • A. Vacuole, nucleus
  • B. Vacuole, nucleus
  • C. Chloroplasts, mitochondrion
  • D. Lysosome, chloroplasts

91. Waste material began to accumulate in plants cell due to the absence of:

  • A. Lysosome
  • B. Vacuole
  • C. Golgi apparatus
  • D. Both a and b

92. The process of cellular respiration occurs in:

  • A. Nucleus
  • B. Mitochondria
  • C. Ribosomes
  • D. Golgi apparatus

93. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is primarily involved in the synthesis of:

  • A. Proteins
  • B. Lipids
  • C. Carbohydrates
  • D. Nucleic acids

94. Ribosomes are composed of:

  • A. RNA and protein
  • B. DNA and protein
  • C. Carbohydrates and lipids
  • D. RNA and carbohydrates

95. Which cell organelle is involved in packaging and modifying protein?

  • A. Nucleus
  • B. Mitochondria
  • C. Golgi apparatus
  • D. Endoplasmic reticulum

96. Which cell organelle is responsible for breaking down waste materials?

  • A. Golgi apparatus
  • B. Nucleus
  • C. Mitochondria
  • D. Lysosome

97. Which of the following cell structures is involved in maintaining cell shape?

  • A. Cytoskeleton
  • B. Centrioles
  • C. Nucleus
  • D. Lysosome

98. Which specialized region of the nucleus is responsible for ribosome assembly?

  • A. Nucleoplasm
  • B. Nucleolus
  • C. Chromatin
  • D. Chromatin

99. What is the main function of the nuclear pores?

  • A. Regulation of cell division
  • B. Protein synthesis
  • C. Control of pH of the cell
  • D. Control of transport of molecules

100. Which of the following cellular structures is found in animal cells and helps in cell division?

  • A. Cell membrane
  • B. Centriole
  • C. Plasmodesma
  • D. Vacuole

101. Cell was discovered by Robert Hooke in:

  • A. 1556
  • B. 1565
  • C. 1656
  • D. 1665

102. Nucleus in cell was discovered by:

  • A. Robert Hooke
  • B. Robert brown
  • C. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
  • D. Margulis

103. It provides shape, strength, protection and support:

  • A. Cell wall
  • B. Cell membrane
  • C. Cytoplasm
  • D. Vacuole

104. Cellulose in cell wall is arranged in a:

  • A. Criss Cross
  • B. Hemicellulose
  • C. Pectin
  • D. All

105. Fungus cell wall contains:

  • A. Chitin
  • B. Peptidoglycan
  • C. Cellulose
  • D. Pectin

106. The channels in cell wall that allows exchange of molecules:

  • A. Plasmodesma
  • B. Nuclear pores
  • C. Channel proteins
  • D. Both a and c

107. According to fluid mosaic model lipids make a bilayer in which molecules are submerged:

  • A. Carbohydrates
  • B. Nucleic acid
  • C. Protein
  • D. Water

108. All cells have thin and elastic structure around the cytoplasm:

  • A. Cell membrane
  • B. Cell wall
  • C. Cisternae
  • D. Cristae

109. Ribosomes are the sites of:

  • A. Lipids synthesis
  • B. Protein synthesis
  • C. Synthesis of sugars
  • D. Synthesis of nucleic acid

110. Detoxification of lipids and chemicals is the function of:

  • A. Golgi apparatus
  • B. SER
  • C. RER
  • D. Lysosomes

111. Flattened sacs in the cytoplasm is called:

  • A. Cristae
  • B. Grana
  • C. Thylakoid
  • D. Cisternae

112. The liquid part of the cytoplasm without organelles is called:

  • A. Nucleus
  • B. Mitochondria
  • C. Golgi apparatus
  • D. Cytosol

113. In 1906, Golgi was awarded noble prize for:

  • A. Physiology
  • B. Medicine
  • C. Both
  • D. Biotechnology

114. Secretions of Golgi vesicles and modification of molecules:

  • A. Lysosome
  • B. Golgi apparatus
  • C. Ribosomes
  • D. Endoplasmic reticulum

115. Cytoplasm is a complex of:

  • A. Water
  • B. Protein
  • C. Enzymes
  • D. All

116. The jelly like material inside nuclear envelope is:

  • A. Sarcoplasm
  • B. Axoplasm
  • C. Cytoplasm
  • D. Nucleoplasm

117. DNA is also called:

  • A. Gene
  • B. Chromosome
  • C. Hereditary material
  • D. Chromatid

118. The inner membrane of mitochondrion form folds called:

  • A. Cisternae
  • B. Cristae
  • C. Grana
  • D. Thalakoid

119. Mitochondria is referred as:

  • A. Powerhouse of cell
  • B. Factory of proteins
  • C. Factory of ribosomes
  • D. Brain of cell

120. The pigment found in chloroplasts is:

  • A. Carotenoids
  • B. Carotenes
  • C. Chlorophyll
  • D. Xanthophyll

121. A sac like structure which make granum is called:

  • A. Thylakoid
  • B. Cisternae
  • C. Cristae
  • D. All of these

122. The site of enzyme synthesis in cell is:

  • A. Lysosome
  • B. SER
  • C. Golgi bodies
  • D. Ribosomes

123. Phospholipids for cell membrane formation are synthesized in:

  • A. Mitochondria
  • B. Cytoplasm
  • C. Endoplasmic reticulum
  • D. Smooth ER

124. The chloroplast functions in:

  • A. ATP synthesis
  • B. Protein synthesis
  • C. Photosynthesis
  • D. DNA replication

125. The membranous structure in the chloroplast is:

  • A. Thylakoids
  • B. Stroma
  • C. Granum
  • D. Intergranum

126. Single membrane bounded organelles with digestive enzymes:

  • A. Ribosomes
  • B. Lysosomes
  • C. Chromosomes
  • D. Nucleosomes

127. Inside the nucleus, granular material is called:

  • A. Cytoplasm
  • B. Protoplasm
  • C. Nucleoplasm
  • D. Cell sap

128. Which of following organisms is a prokaryote?

  • A. Amoeba
  • B. Mushroom
  • C. Escherichia coli
  • D. Human

129. Cilia flagella are connected with:

  • A. Centromere
  • B. Centrosome
  • C. Chromosome
  • D. Ribosome

130. Plants cell wall composed of number of layers:

  • A. 1
  • B. 2
  • C. 3
  • D. 4

131. Nucleolus is bounded by:

  • A. None/Single
  • B. Double membrane
  • C. Cell wall
  • D. Triple membrane

132. Chromatin is composed of:

  • A. DNA and RNA
  • B. RNA and proteins
  • C. Proteins and DNA
  • D. None of these

133. When was Golgi apparatus discovered?

  • A. 1789
  • B. 1898
  • C. 1998
  • D. 1768

134. Golgi was awarded Nobel prize in:

  • A. 1809
  • B. 1806
  • C. 1909
  • D. 1906

135. In a multicellular plant, which cell type produces glucose?

  • A. Xylem
  • B. Phloem
  • C. Epidermal
  • D. Mesophyll

136. Primary pigment responsible for capturing sunlight:

  • A. Melanin
  • B. Chlorophyll
  • C. Hemoglobin
  • D. Carotene

137. Stem cells present in bone marrow differentiate into:

  • A. Blood cells
  • B. Skin cells
  • C. Nerve cells
  • D. Gametes

138. In which phase of cell cycle, maximum growth occurs?

  • A. M phase
  • B. S phase
  • C. G1 phase
  • D. G2 phase

139. In which phase of cell cycle, chromosomes duplicate?

  • A. Mitosis
  • B. G1 phase
  • C. G2 phase
  • D. S phase

140. Which phase of cell cycle is also called growth phase?

  • A. G1 phase
  • B. S phase
  • C. G2 phase
  • D. M phase

141. Total no of chromosomes during S phase:

  • A. double
  • B. Four times
  • C. Remains same
  • D. Unpredictable

142. In G0 phase the stoppage in division may be:

  • A. Temporary
  • B. Permanent
  • C. For specific time
  • D. Temporary/permanent

143. Interphase lasts for about of the total time:

  • A. 60%
  • B. 70%
  • C. 80%
  • D. 90%

144. At which stage of mitosis do chromosomes line up in the center?

  • A. Prophase
  • B. Metaphase
  • C. Anaphase
  • D. Telophase

145. Nuclear membrane reforming around two sets of chromosomes:

  • A. Anaphase
  • B. Telophase
  • C. Prophase
  • D. Metaphase

146. How does the centrosome contribute to mitosis?

  • A. Initiates replication
  • B. Makes mitotic spindle
  • C. Forms envelope
  • D. Duplicates organelles

147. Centrosomes make mitotic spindle in:

  • A. Animal cells
  • B. Plant cells
  • C. Prokaryotic cells
  • D. All of these

148. Mitosis occurs in which cells of eukaryotes:

  • A. Neurons
  • B. Somatic cells
  • C. Muscle cells
  • D. Red blood cells

149. Who discovered the events of mitosis:

  • A. Louis pasteur
  • B. Walther Flemming
  • C. Ronald Ross
  • D. Carolus Linnaeus

150. Which of the following is false about prophase:

  • A. Envelope breaks
  • B. Nucleolus breaks
  • C. Duplicates
  • D. Remains near nucleus

151. Unfolding of chromosomes (to chromatin) occurs in:

  • A. Prophase
  • B. Metaphase
  • C. Anaphase
  • D. Telophase

152. Hydra reproduces asexually by means of:

  • A. Binary fission
  • B. Fragmentation
  • C. Budding
  • D. All of the above

153. Chromosome number in a zygote relative to parent:

  • A. Half
  • B. Same as parent
  • C. Double
  • D. Unpredictable

154. During cell division spindle fibers attach to:

  • A. Centromere
  • B. Telomere
  • C. Upper arm
  • D. Lower arm

155. What is the primary purpose of mitosis?

  • A. Gametes
  • B. Repair tissue
  • C. Growth
  • D. B and C

156. Our body consist of about cells:

  • A. 200 billion
  • B. 200 trillion
  • C. 200 million
  • D. 10000 billion

157. Which event is unique to meiosis but not mitosis?

  • A. DNA replication
  • B. Alignment
  • C. Crossing over
  • D. Nuclear division

158. Why is meiosis-II necessary after meiosis-I?

  • A. Replicate
  • B. Reduce number
  • C. Separate sister chromatids
  • D. Recombination

159. Meiosis was discovered in 1876 by:

  • A. Walther Flemming
  • B. Oscar Hertwig
  • C. Louis pasteur
  • D. Carolus Linnaeus

160. X-shaped structure formed during meiosis:

  • A. Synapsis
  • B. Tetrad
  • C. Chiasmata
  • D. Crossing over

161. The number of chromosomes is maintained by:

  • A. Mitosis
  • B. Meiosis
  • C. Budding
  • D. Fragmentation

162. Genetically different zygote is formed as a result of:

  • A. Mitosis
  • B. Meiosis
  • C. Budding
  • D. Fragmentation

163. The longest phase of meiosis is:

  • A. Interphase I
  • B. Prophase I
  • C. Interphase II
  • D. Prophase II

164. The primary purpose of meiosis is:

  • A. Diploid cells
  • B. Haploid cells
  • C. Repair DNA
  • D. Synthesis protein

165. Meiosis was discovered in:

  • A. 1976
  • B. 1676
  • C. 1876
  • D. 1576

166. Crossing over take place in:

  • A. Prophase-II
  • B. Prophase-I
  • C. Prophase
  • D. None of these

167. Gametes are produce by:

  • A. Mitosis
  • B. Meiosis
  • C. Binary fission
  • D. Budding

168. What is the smallest unit of matter?

  • A. Molecule
  • B. Cell
  • C. Atom
  • D. Tissue

169. What is the subcellular level called?

  • A. Cell
  • B. Tissue
  • C. Organelle
  • D. Organ

170. What is a group of similar cells called?

  • A. Organ
  • B. Tissue
  • C. Organ system
  • D. Organism

171. What is an example of an organ in animals?

  • A. Heart
  • B. Liver
  • C. Kidney
  • D. All of the above

172. What is the primary function of the ribosomes?

  • A. Protein synthesis
  • B. Cell division
  • C. Energy production
  • D. Waste removal

173. The most complex level of organization is:

  • A. Tissue level
  • B. Organ level
  • C. Organ System level
  • D. Organism level

174. The smallest unit with characteristics of life is:

  • A. Organelle
  • B. Cell
  • C. Tissue
  • D. Organ

175. The tissue which covers body surface and lines cavities:

  • A. Muscle tissue
  • B. Vascular tissue
  • C. Epithelial tissue
  • D. Epidermal tissue

176. “The whole is greater than the sum of its parts” said by:

  • A. Abu Ali Sina
  • B. Aristotle
  • C. Ibn Rushd
  • D. Abu Usman Umar

177. Interaction of various organ system brings:

  • A. Consciousness
  • B. Thinking
  • C. Adaptation
  • D. All of the above

178. Which structure is at a different level from others?

  • A. Kidney
  • B. Liver
  • C. Neuron
  • D. Lung

179. Biological organization means:

  • A. Study organisms
  • B. Study branches
  • C. Study science
  • D. Study at different levels

180. In a leaf, which tissue is responsible for photosynthesis?

  • A. Xylem
  • B. Mesophyll
  • C. Epidermis
  • D. Phloem

181. Primary function of the xylem tissue in a leaf:

  • A. Transport sugars
  • B. Transport water
  • C. Synthesize chlorophyll
  • D. Control stomata

182. Responsible for the transport of food in plant body:

  • A. Xylem tissue
  • B. Palisade
  • C. Phloem tissue
  • D. Spongy

183. Primary function of the flower in a plant:

  • A. Transport water
  • B. Supporting growth
  • C. Reproduction
  • D. Regulating gas

184. What is the primary function of roots in plants?

  • A. Photosynthesis
  • B. Absorbing water/minerals
  • C. Reproduction
  • D. Storage

185. What is the primary site of photosynthesis in plants?

  • A. Roots
  • B. Stems
  • C. Leaves
  • D. Flowers

186. What is the function of the phloem in leaves?

  • A. Transporting water
  • B. Conducting sugars
  • C. Gas exchange
  • D. None

187. Which part plays a crucial role in plant’s sexual reproduction:

  • A. Roots
  • B. Stems
  • C. Leaves
  • D. Flowers

188. Stomata are tiny pores that regulates:

  • A. Gas exchange
  • B. Water vapour loss
  • C. Nutrients
  • D. Both A and B

189. The tissue contain cells rich in chloroplasts are:

  • A. Epidermal tissue
  • B. Mesophyll tissue
  • C. Xylem tissue
  • D. Phloem tissue

190. Root system involves in:

  • A. Anchoring the plant
  • B. Sexual reproduction
  • C. Transpiration
  • D. Movement of water

191. Which structure is not an organ?

  • A. Artery
  • B. Flower
  • C. Spinal cord
  • D. Xylem

192. Which tissue transport water in plants?

  • A. Xylem
  • B. Phloem
  • C. Epidermal
  • D. Mesophyll

193. Epithelial tissue in stomach wall produces:

  • A. Mucus
  • B. Pepsinogen
  • C. Hydrochloric acid
  • D. All of these

194. Which organ pumps blood throughout the body:

  • A. Heart
  • B. Lungs
  • C. Brain
  • D. Liver

195. Which organ is the control center of the body?

  • A. Heart
  • B. Lungs
  • C. Brain
  • D. Liver

196. Which organ breaks down food using enzymes?

  • A. Stomach
  • B. Intestines
  • C. Pancreas
  • D. Liver

197. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

  • A. Filtering blood
  • B. Producing bile
  • C. Storing glucose
  • D. Regulating blood pressure

198. Kidneys filter waste products from:

  • A. Blood
  • B. Lymph
  • C. Extracellular fluid
  • D. All of the above

199. Epithelial tissue secretes:

  • A. Mucus
  • B. Pepsinogen
  • C. HCl
  • D. All

200. What is the main function of the nervous system?

  • A. Digesting food
  • B. Circulating blood
  • C. Controlling/coordinating
  • D. Plastics

201. What is the normal body temperature?

  • A. 35Β°C
  • B. 37Β°C
  • C. 39Β°C
  • D. 40Β°C

202. What hormone regulates blood sugar levels?

  • A. Insulin
  • B. Glucagon
  • C. Adrenaline
  • D. Thyroxine

203. Role of the endocrine system in homeostasis?

  • A. Regulating temp
  • B. Maintaining BP
  • C. Coordinating
  • D. Producing hormones

204. During hard exercise, the rate of respiration:

  • A. Increase
  • B. Decrease
  • C. Remain normal
  • D. Both A and C

205. Biomolecule carrying genetic information?

  • A. Protein
  • B. Carbohydrate
  • C. Lipid
  • D. Nucleic acid

206. What is the main function of carbohydrates?

  • A. Structural support
  • B. Energy storage
  • C. Synthesize proteins
  • D. Regulate traffic

207. Percentage of lipids in dry mass of protoplasm?

  • A. 5%
  • B. 10%
  • C. 15%
  • D. 20%

208. Where is DNA located in eukaryotic cells?

  • A. Cytoplasm
  • B. Nucleus
  • C. Mitochondria
  • D. Chloroplast

209. Complex molecules formed from smaller ones:

  • A. Catabolism
  • B. Metabolism
  • C. Anabolism
  • D. Respiration

210. Difference between mono and polysaccharides?

  • A. Mono are single sugars
  • B. Poly are sweet
  • C. Mono in cell walls
  • D. Poly dissolve easily

211. What is true about cellulose?

  • A. Sweet in taste
  • B. Digestible by human
  • C. Structural support
  • D. Soluble in water

212. What does “carbohydrate” mean?

  • A. Hydrated proteins
  • B. Hydrated carbons
  • C. Hydrated lipids
  • D. Hydrated nucleic acids

213. General formula for carbohydrates?

  • A. (CHβ‚‚O)n
  • B. (CHβ‚‚O)n
  • C. (Cβ‚‚Hβ‚‚O)n
  • D. (Cβ‚‚Hβ‚„O)n

214. Polysaccharide found in cell walls of plants?

  • A. Starch
  • B. Glycogen
  • C. Cellulose
  • D. Chitin

215. Monosaccharide which is essential part of DNA?

  • A. Ribose
  • B. Deoxyribose
  • C. Glucose
  • D. Fructose

216. Most abundant carbohydrate is:

  • A. Glucose
  • B. Starch
  • C. Cellulose
  • D. Chitin

217. Meaning of saccharides is:

  • A. Sugar
  • B. Fruits
  • C. Salts
  • D. Minerals

218. Protein involved in oxygen transport?

  • A. Insulin
  • B. Hemoglobin
  • C. Collagen
  • D. Keratin

219. Component of amino acid determining properties?

  • A. Amino group
  • B. Carboxyl group
  • C. R group
  • D. Hydrogen group

220. Proteins involved in defence against pathogens?

  • A. Antibodies
  • B. Myosin
  • C. Fibrinogen
  • D. Haemoglobin

221. Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?

  • A. Transport oxygen
  • B. Carry genetic info
  • C. Digesting food
  • D. Fight pathogens

222. What is the building block of proteins?

  • A. Amino acids
  • B. Carbohydrates
  • C. Lipids
  • D. Nucleic acids

223. What is the main component of cell membranes?

  • A. Carbohydrates
  • B. Proteins
  • C. Lipids
  • D. Nucleic acids

224. Which amino acid has the simplest R group?

  • A. Alanine
  • B. Glycine
  • C. Serine
  • D. Threonine

225. Total number of amino acids in the body?

  • A. 150
  • B. 170
  • C. 190
  • D. 200

226. Which of the following are the units of most lipids?

  • A. Amino acids
  • B. Fatty acids/glycerol
  • C. Nucleotides
  • D. Simple sugars

227. What are lipids composed of?

  • A. Glycerol/proteins
  • B. Glycerol/fatty acids
  • C. Glycerol/carbs
  • D. Glycerol/nucleic acids

228. What is the function of lipids in the body?

  • A. To provide energy
  • B. Synthesize proteins
  • C. Regulate temp
  • D. Break down carbs

229. What is the main source of lipids in plants?

  • A. Leaves
  • B. Roots
  • C. Seeds
  • D. Stems

230. Energy obtained from one gram of fat?

  • A. 5 Kcal/g
  • B. 9 Kcal/g
  • C. 13 Kcal/g
  • D. 17 Kcal/g

231. Lipids are insoluble in:

  • A. Alcohol
  • B. Ether
  • C. Benzene
  • D. Water

232. Which components make up a nucleotide?

  • A. Sugar/Phosphate/Base
  • B. Amino acid/Sugar/Base
  • C. Fatty acid/Sugar/Base
  • D. Protein/Sugar/Base

233. Base found in RNA but not in DNA?

  • A. Adenine
  • B. Thymine
  • C. Uracil
  • D. Guanine

234. What are nucleic acids composed of?

  • A. Amino acids
  • B. Nucleotides
  • C. Carbohydrates
  • D. Lipids

235. Sugar present in DNA?

  • A. Ribose
  • B. Deoxyribose
  • C. Sucrose
  • D. Glucose

236. What is the function of DNA?

  • A. Provide energy
  • B. Synthesize proteins
  • C. Store genetic info
  • D. Regulate temp

237. What is the function of ribosomes?

  • A. Synthesize proteins
  • B. Store genetic info
  • C. Provide energy
  • D. Regulate temp

238. RNA transfers specific amino acids to ribosomes?

  • A. mRNA
  • B. tRNA
  • C. rRNA
  • D. DNA

239. Statement regarding genes which is FALSE?

  • A. Located on chromosomes
  • B. DNA sequence
  • C. Each cell has single copy
  • D. Produces protein

240. This is a heredity material:

  • A. DNA
  • B. RNA
  • C. tRNA
  • D. rRNA

241. Carries genetic info from DNA to ribosomes?

  • A. mRNA
  • B. rRNA
  • C. tRNA
  • D. DNA

242. Watson and Cricks proposed DNA model in?

  • A. 1950
  • B. 1953
  • C. 1956
  • D. 1959

243. When did Watson and Crick get the Nobel Prize?

  • A. 1953
  • B. 1962
  • C. 1956
  • D. 1959

244. Process of copying DNA sequence into mRNA?

  • A. Transcription
  • B. Translation
  • C. Replication
  • D. Mutation

245. Process of forming proteins from mRNA sequence?

  • A. Transcription
  • B. Translation
  • C. Replication
  • D. Mutation

246. Where does protein synthesis occur in a cell?

  • A. Nucleus
  • B. Mitochondria
  • C. Ribosomes
  • D. Lysosomes

247. Biochemical reactions to maintain life?

  • A. Catabolism
  • B. Anabolism
  • C. Metabolism
  • D. Mutualism

248. Reactions in which larger molecules are synthesized?

  • A. Anabolism
  • B. Metabolism
  • C. Catabolism
  • D. Digestive reactions

249. Which best defines an enzyme?

  • A. Food breaker
  • B. Metabolism regulator
  • C. Protein speeder
  • D. Energy stor

250. Prosthetic groups are:

  • A. Required by all
  • B. Proteins
  • C. Loosely attached
  • D. Tightly bound

251. Where do intracellular enzymes operate?

  • A. Outside cells
  • B. Inside cells
  • C. Bloodstream
  • D. Digestive fluids

252. Which is true about enzyme?

  • A. Not all are protein
  • B. All are vitamins
  • C. All are proteins
  • D. All proteins are enzyme

253. What is true about cofactors?

  • A. Break H-bonds
  • B. Facilitate activity
  • C. Increase activation energy
  • D. Made of proteins

254. Region on enzyme recognizing substrate:

  • A. Cofactor
  • B. Activator
  • C. Inhibitor
  • D. Active site

255. Enzymes convert the substrate into:

  • A. Reactants
  • B. Products
  • C. Inhibitors
  • D. Biomolecules

256. True according to induced fit model?

  • A. Active site changes shape
  • B. Substrate changes shape
  • C. No shape changes
  • D. Binds elsewhere

257. Model proposed by Emil Fischer in 1894?

  • A. Induced fit
  • B. Lock and key
  • C. Binding model
  • D. Flexibility model

258. Model proposed by Daniel Koshland in 1958?

  • A. Lock and key
  • B. Induced fit
  • C. Activation model
  • D. Product model

259. Emil Fischer proposed the model in:

  • A. 1697
  • B. 1958
  • C. 1894
  • D. 1858

260. Enzymes are sensitive to which factor?

  • A. Temperature
  • B. pH
  • C. Light intensity
  • D. Salt concentration

261. Where does trypsin function in the body?

  • A. Stomach
  • B. Small intestine
  • C. Brain
  • D. Heart

262. Change in pH can alter active site by:

  • A. Ionization of amino acids
  • B. Shape of substrate
  • C. Ionization of cofactor
  • D. Ionization of coenzyme

263. Pepsin enzyme works in:

  • A. Stomach
  • B. Large intestine
  • C. Small intestine
  • D. Heart

264. Pepsin produced in:

  • A. Oral cavity
  • B. Stomach
  • C. Large intestine
  • D. Small intestine

265. How does competitive inhibitor affect enzyme?

  • A. Binds substrate
  • B. Changes shape
  • C. Blocks active site
  • D. Blocks cofactors

266. Bind to enzymes and decrease activity:

  • A. Activation
  • B. Inhibition
  • C. Catalysis
  • D. Synthesis

267. Inhibitors resemble the enzyme’s substrate?

  • A. Competitive inhibition
  • B. Non-competitive
  • C. Allosteric
  • D. Irreversible

268. Inhibitor that binds to the active site?

  • A. Competitive interference
  • B. Non-competitive
  • C. Both a and b
  • D. None

269. These are antibiotics:

  • A. Competitive interference
  • B. Non-competitive
  • C. Oils
  • D. Nucleic acids

270. From ATP, which bonds are broken for energy?

  • A. P-P bonds
  • B. C-H bonds
  • C. C-N bonds
  • D. C-O bonds

271. The major energy currency of all cells is:

  • A. ADP
  • B. ATP
  • C. AMP
  • D. P-bonds

272. Study of energy transformations in living things:

  • A. Cytology
  • B. Bioenergetics
  • C. Physiology
  • D. Taxonomy

273. Ribose is:

  • A. 3-carbon sugar
  • B. 4-carbon sugar
  • C. 5-carbon sugar
  • D. 6-carbon sugar

274. Which sugar is included in ATP?

  • A. Glucose
  • B. Fructose
  • C. Ribose
  • D. Maltose

275. The number of ATP sub-units is:

  • A. 2
  • B. 3
  • C. 4
  • D. 5

276. Nitrogenous base in ATP molecule:

  • A. Ribose
  • B. Adenine
  • C. Phosphate group
  • D. None

277. Calories released per mole when P-bond breaks?

  • A. 7.2
  • B. 7.3
  • C. 3.7
  • D. 2.7

278. Acquisition of electrons is called:

  • A. Oxidation
  • B. Reduction
  • C. Redox
  • D. All are correct

279. Light reactions of photosynthesis occur in:

  • A. Plasma membrane
  • B. Cytoplasm
  • C. Stroma
  • D. Thylakoids

280. Wavelengths absorbed to maximum by chlorophyll?

  • A. Green/blue
  • B. Green/red
  • C. Red/blue
  • D. Only green

281. Where do dark reactions occur?

  • A. Stroma
  • B. Thylakoids
  • C. Outer membrane
  • D. Cytoplasm

282. Molecule donating electrons in light reactions?

  • A. NADPH
  • B. Water
  • C. Oxygen
  • D. Carbon dioxide

283. Mechanism of ATP synthesis is:

  • A. Phosphorylation
  • B. Photosynthesis
  • C. Respiration
  • D. Glucose

284. Identify raw materials of photosynthesis:

  • A. Sunlight
  • B. COβ‚‚
  • C. Water
  • D. All of these

285. Dark reactions were discovered by:

  • A. Melvin Calvin
  • B. Abu Ali Sina
  • C. Darwin
  • D. Jabir Bin Hayan

286. Substances that absorb visible light:

  • A. Pigments
  • B. Resins
  • C. Dye
  • D. Photocell

287. Percentage of light absorbed by plant leaf?

  • A. 01%
  • B. 02%
  • C. 03%
  • D. 04%

288. When yeast ferments glucose, products are:

  • A. Alcohol and COβ‚‚
  • B. Alcohol/Water
  • C. Lactic acid
  • D. COβ‚‚ and Hβ‚‚O

289. Aerobic process producing most ATP?

  • A. Glycolysis
  • B. Krebs cycle
  • C. Electron transport chain
  • D. Fermentation

290. Common byproduct of anaerobic respiration in animals?

  • A. Oxygen
  • B. Water
  • C. Lactic acid
  • D. Carbon dioxide

291. Glycolysis is the breakdown of:

  • A. Fructose
  • B. Glucose
  • C. Lactose
  • D. Maltose

292. In aerobic respiration pyruvic acid changes to:

  • A. Glucose
  • B. Fructose
  • C. Acetyl CoA
  • D. Citric acid

293. Alcoholic fermentation occurs in:

  • A. Bacteria
  • B. Yeast
  • C. Man
  • D. Bacteria and Yeast

294. Tired because skeletal muscles accumulate:

  • A. Lactic acid
  • B. Ethyl alcohol
  • C. Lactic acid/COβ‚‚
  • D. Alcohol/COβ‚‚

295. Where does the Krebs cycle occur?

  • A. Nucleus
  • B. Mitochondria
  • C. Chlorophyll
  • D. Ribosome

296. Main purpose of fermentation?

  • A. Produce oxygen
  • B. Produce energy
  • C. Synthesize protein
  • D. All of the above

297. Soy sauce is made by:

  • A. Bacteria
  • B. Fungus
  • C. Algae
  • D. Virus

298. Breakdown of glucose in first step of respiration:

  • A. Electrolysis
  • B. Hydrolysis
  • C. Glycolysis
  • D. All

299. Plant nutrient required in large amount?

  • A. Iron
  • B. Zinc
  • C. Potassium
  • D. Boron

300. Element required for chlorophyll formation?

  • A. Phosphorus
  • B. Calcium
  • C. Magnesium
  • D. Sulphur

301. Process where plants get their food:

  • A. Respiration
  • B. Photosynthesis
  • C. Oxidation
  • D. Gaseous Exchange

302. Which is an example of macro nutrients:

  • A. Calcium
  • B. Zinc
  • C. Chlorine
  • D. Boron

303. Macro nutrient regulating stomata:

  • A. Potassium
  • B. Calcium
  • C. Sulphur
  • D. Oxygen

304. Which element is a micronutrient for plants?

  • A. Nitrogen
  • B. Zinc
  • C. Carbon
  • D. Phosphorus

305. Primary function of root hairs is:

  • A. Transport
  • B. Storage
  • C. Surface area for absorption
  • D. Synthesis

306. Water moves from soil to root cells by:

  • A. Osmosis
  • B. Active transport
  • C. Diffusion
  • D. Bulk flow

307. Responsible for the transport of food:

  • A. Xylem
  • B. Calcium
  • C. Phloem
  • D. Magnesium

308. Xylem and Phloem collectively called:

  • A. Pericycle
  • B. Endodermis
  • C. Vascular bundle
  • D. Epidermis

309. Zone of cells inside root epidermis:

  • A. Endoderm
  • B. Cortex
  • C. Xylem
  • D. Phloem

310. Transpiration is regulated by:

  • A. Mesophyll
  • B. Guard cells
  • C. Xylem
  • D. Phloem

311. Ion playing role in opening of Stomata?

  • A. Sodium
  • B. Potassium
  • C. Calcium
  • D. Magnesium

312. Loss of water in form of vapours:

  • A. Respiration
  • B. Transpiration
  • C. Diffusion
  • D. Osmosis

313. Roles of stomata in plants:

  • A. Exchange
  • B. Absorption
  • C. Transpiration
  • D. Exchange/Transpiration

314. When Stomata remain open?

  • A. Guard cells turgid
  • B. Guard cells soft
  • C. No water
  • D. None

315. Stomata are present:

  • A. Lower leaf surface
  • B. Stems
  • C. Roots
  • D. Petals

316. Uptake of water/minerals takes place through:

  • A. Epidermal cells
  • B. Root cap
  • C. Root
  • D. Root hair

317. Continuous water column created in xylem due to:

  • A. Attraction
  • B. Narrow diameter
  • C. Adhesion
  • D. All of these

318. Most plants transport food in form of:

  • A. Glucose
  • B. Sucrose
  • C. Starch
  • D. Maltose

319. True according to pressure flow mechanism?

  • A. Water creates pressure
  • B. Pulled from sink
  • C. Gravity movement
  • D. Low to high

320. Two-way passage of food:

  • A. Xylem
  • B. Phloem
  • C. Epidermis
  • D. Cortex

321. Pressure flow mechanism is about:

  • A. Translocation of food
  • B. Transport of water
  • C. Stomata
  • D. Transpiration

322. Xylem transport of water and salts is:

  • A. One-way
  • B. Two-way
  • C. Three-way
  • D. Conditional

323. Mechanism explaining transport of food:

  • A. Cohesion Tension
  • B. Pressure Flow
  • C. Photosynthesis
  • D. Respiration

324. During daytime, all plant cells are carrying out:

  • A. Diffusion
  • B. Osmosis
  • C. Active transport
  • D. Respiration

325. During daytime, green parts of plants are carrying out:

  • A. Respiration
  • B. Diffusion
  • C. Osmosis
  • D. Photosynthesis

326. Take in oxygen, release carbon dioxide:

  • A. Day
  • B. Night
  • C. All the time
  • D. None

327. Wood stem surface cover with:

  • A. Cuticle
  • B. Epidermis
  • C. Bark
  • D. Stomata

328. How many types of transpiration?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five

329. Rubber plants excrete:

  • A. Latex
  • B. Resins
  • C. Gums
  • D. Mucilage

330. Waste product of plant at night?

  • A. Oxygen
  • B. Carbon dioxide
  • C. Both
  • D. None

331. Succulent organs are present in:

  • A. Xerophytes
  • B. Hydrophytes
  • C. Mesophytes
  • D. Halophytes

332. Which is an example of Hydrophytes:

  • A. Rose
  • B. Grass
  • C. Cacti
  • D. Water Lily

333. Which is NOT an example of Mesophytes:

  • A. Cacti
  • B. Rose
  • C. Clover
  • D. Maize

334. Submerged in fresh water:

  • A. Xerophytes
  • B. Halophytes
  • C. Mesophytes
  • D. Hydrophytes

335. Example of Xerophytes is:

  • A. Cactus
  • B. Rose
  • C. Sea grasses
  • D. Water lily

336. Reproduced by binary fission:

  • A. Yeast
  • B. Bacteria
  • C. Rhizopus
  • D. Plants

337. Primary method of reproduction in yeast?

  • A. Binary fission
  • B. Spores
  • C. Budding
  • D. Fragmentation

338. Spore formation in fungi:

  • A. Sexual
  • B. Two kinds
  • C. Dry environments
  • D. Harsh conditions

339. Propagation through runners:

  • A. Potato
  • B. Strawberry
  • C. Onion
  • D. Ginger

340. Propagates through tubers?

  • A. Onion
  • B. Potato
  • C. Ginger
  • D. Garlic

341. Aboveground horizontal stem (leaves/roots at nodes):

  • A. Stolon
  • B. Bulb
  • C. Rhizome
  • D. Corm

342. Does NOT help vegetative propagation?

  • A. Rhizome
  • B. Corm
  • C. Runner
  • D. Flower

343. Essential for continuation of species:

  • A. Respiration
  • B. Cloning
  • C. Reproduction
  • D. Location

344. Amoeba reproduces asexually by:

  • A. Budding
  • B. Binary fission
  • C. Fragmentation
  • D. Spores

345. Method where buds are formed:

  • A. Regeneration
  • B. Fragmentation
  • C. Budding
  • D. Binary fission

346. Sugarcane reproduces using:

  • A. Stolon
  • B. Tuber
  • C. Rhizomes/Cutting
  • D. Suckers

347. Spores are produced in:

  • A. Capsule
  • B. Sporangium
  • C. Bud
  • D. Sporangiphore

348. Horizontal underground stem:

  • A. Tuber
  • B. Bulb
  • C. Rhizome
  • D. Corm

349. Rhizopus reproduces asexually by:

  • A. Binary fission
  • B. Budding
  • C. Spore formation
  • D. Endospores

350. Formed inside bacterial cells:

  • A. Cysts
  • B. Spores
  • C. Endospore
  • D. All

351. Structure of Rhizopus in reproduction:

  • A. Bud
  • B. Node
  • C. Sporangium
  • D. All

352. Artificial vegetative propagation:

  • A. Bulbs
  • B. Corm
  • C. Rhizomes
  • D. Grafting

353. Used to increase crop production:

  • A. Artificial propagation
  • B. Natural
  • C. Cutting
  • D. Grafting

354. Almond, Plum and cherries:

  • A. Cutting
  • B. Grafting/Suckers
  • C. Suckers
  • D. Bulbs

355. Responsible for producing pollen:

  • A. Stigma
  • B. Anther
  • C. Ovary
  • D. Petal

356. Forms female gametophyte:

  • A. Pollen
  • B. Ovule
  • C. Anther
  • D. Sepal

357. Male gametophyte is:

  • A. Pollen grain
  • B. Embryo sac
  • C. Ovary
  • D. Carpel

358. Which structure is triploid (3n)?

  • A. Egg
  • B. Fusion nucleus
  • C. Endosperm nucleus
  • D. Sperm

359. Embryo sac is formed inside:

  • A. Filament
  • B. Anther
  • C. Style
  • D. Ovule

360. Double fertilization involves:

  • A. Two gametes
  • B. Two eggs
  • C. Egg and Fusion nucleus
  • D. Egg and Tube cell

361. Which generation producing spores:

  • A. Sporophyte
  • B. Gametophyte
  • C. Both
  • D. None

362. Unit of corolla:

  • A. Carpals
  • B. Petals
  • C. Stamens
  • D. Sepals

363. Female reproductive organ:

  • A. Stamen
  • B. Carpel
  • C. Sepal
  • D. Petal

364. Transfer of pollen:

  • A. Pollination
  • B. Fertilization
  • C. Cross
  • D. Self

365. Zygote develops into:

  • A. Zygote
  • B. Embryo
  • C. Both
  • D. None

366. Zygote in flowering plants develops into:

  • A. Endosperm
  • B. Embryo
  • C. Microphyte
  • D. Seed coat

367. Which flower structure Produce pollen?

  • A. Anther
  • B. Petal
  • C. Carpel
  • D. Stigma

368. Second whorl of flower:

  • A. Calyx
  • B. Corolla
  • C. Andrecium
  • D. Gynoecium

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