Class 9 Important Chemistry MCQs (All Chapters) – Free PDF

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Class 9 Chemistry MCQS

Chemistry – 9th Class

High-Scoring MCQs Bank (200 Questions)

1. What this world is made of?

  • A. Air
  • B. Matter
  • C. Energy
  • D. Matter & energy

2. Number of states of matter that we observe in everyday life.

  • A. 2
  • B. 3
  • C. 4
  • D. 5

3. Which branch investigate the behaviour of substance at atomic or molecular level?

  • A. Organic Chemistry
  • B. Biochemistry
  • C. Analytical Chemistry
  • D. Physical Chemistry

4. The study of covalent compounds of carbon, hydrogen and their derivatives deals:

  • A. Organic Chemistry
  • B. Inorganic Chemistry
  • C. Analytical Chemistry
  • D. Industrial Chemistry

5. Identify the naturally occurring polymer.

  • A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
  • B. Protein
  • C. H₂O
  • D. None of these

6. Hazardous effects of shopping bags are studied in:

  • A. Geochemistry
  • B. Inorganic Chemistry
  • C. Analytical Chemistry
  • D. Environmental Chemistry

7. The man made polymer is:

  • A. Starch
  • B. Polystyrene
  • C. Protein
  • D. Cellulose

8. Simplest form of matter is:

  • A. Molecules
  • B. Mixture
  • C. Elements
  • D. Compounds

9. Types of mixture are:

  • A. 2
  • B. 3
  • C. 4
  • D. 5

10. Allotropic forms of oxygen are:

  • A. One
  • B. Two
  • C. Three
  • D. Four

11. Which one of the following is NOT a homogeneous mixture?

  • A. Solution of salt
  • B. Solution of sugar
  • C. Milk
  • D. Rock

12. Identify the nature of chocolate.

  • A. Element
  • B. Compound
  • C. Mixture
  • D. Plasma

13. Which one of the following is NOT a crystalline form of carbon?

  • A. Diamond
  • B. Buckminster fullerene
  • C. Graphene
  • D. Coal

14. What is true about element?

  • A. It is pure substance
  • B. It is the simplest form of matter
  • C. It contain same kind of atoms
  • D. All of these

15. The symbol of sodium element is.

  • A. N
  • B. NA
  • C. Na
  • D. Ni

16. Which element exists in the form of monoatomic molecule?

  • A. Oxygen
  • B. Nitrogen
  • C. Chlorine
  • D. Noble gases

17. Identify incorrect statement about compound.

  • A. A compound is an impure substance
  • B. It is formed by chemical combination
  • C. Its components cannot separate by physical mean
  • D. Its components lose their properties

18. Which of the following is an impure substance:

  • A. Gold
  • B. Water
  • C. Ammonia
  • D. Air

19. A sample that is formed by simple mixing of their components without fixed ratio is:

  • A. Element
  • B. Compound
  • C. Mixture
  • D. Table salt

20. A solution in which solute particles are invisible is called:

  • A. False solution
  • B. True solution
  • C. Colloidal solution
  • D. Suspension

21. What statement about suspension is incorrect?

  • A. It is a mixture
  • B. Solute particles do not dissolve in solvent
  • C. We can see the solute particles
  • D. It is true solution

22. A mixture of chalk in water is an example of:

  • A. True solution
  • B. Colloidal solution
  • C. Suspension
  • D. Homogeneous mixture

23. Starch solution is:

  • A. True solution
  • B. Colloidal solution
  • C. Suspension
  • D. None of these

24. The solution which can dissolve more amount of solute called:

  • A. Saturated solution
  • B. Unsaturated solution
  • C. Super saturated solution
  • D. Suspension

25. When the tiny visible particles of a substance are dispersed through a medium, the mixture is named as:

  • A. True solution
  • B. Colloid
  • C. Suspension
  • D. Saturated solution

26. Colour of element sulphur is:

  • A. Yellow
  • B. White
  • C. Brown
  • D. Black

27. John Dalton put forward his atomic theory in:

  • A. 1803
  • B. 1903
  • C. 2005
  • D. 1673

28. How many times a proton is heavier than an electron?

  • A. 1936
  • B. 1836
  • C. 1736
  • D. 1673

29. When neutron was discovered?

  • A. 1912
  • B. 1923
  • C. 1933
  • D. 1943

30. How many protons are in ⁴/₂He atom?

  • A. 2
  • B. 4
  • C. 4
  • D. 5

31. How much charge carries a proton?

  • A. +1.6022 × 10⁻¹⁹C
  • B. -1.6022 × 10⁻¹⁹C
  • C. +2.6022 × 10⁻¹⁹C
  • D. -2.622 × 10⁻¹⁹C

32. How much charge carries a neutron particle?

  • A. -1.6022 × 10⁻¹⁹
  • B. +1.6022 × 10⁻¹⁹
  • C. 0.0
  • D. None of these

33. Who proposed the concept of orbits?

  • A. Neutron
  • B. Dalton
  • C. Bohr
  • D. Goldstein

34. Fourth shell consist of subshell:

  • A. s
  • B. s,p
  • C. s,p,d
  • D. s,p,d,f

35. The formula used to calculate number of electrons in each shell is:

  • A.
  • B. 2n²
  • C. 2n³
  • D. 4n³

36. What information was obtained from discharge tube experiments?

  • A. Structure of atom was discovered
  • B. Neutrons and protons were discovered
  • C. Electrons and protons were discovered
  • D. Presence of nucleus in an atom was discovered

37. What does keep the particles present in the nucleus intact?

  • A. Particles are held together by strong nuclear force
  • B. Particles are held together by weak nuclear force
  • C. Particles are held together by electrostatic force
  • D. Particles are held together by dipolar force

38. How do electrons keep themselves away from the oppositely charged nucleus?

  • A. By keeping themselves stationary
  • B. By revolving around the nucleus
  • C. Due to their wave-like nature
  • D. A magnetic field around the nucleus keeps them away

39. Fundamental particles of all types of matter are:

  • A. Protons
  • B. Neutrons
  • C. Electrons
  • D. All of these

40. As whole an atom carries charge:

  • A. Positive
  • B. Negative
  • C. Atom is neutral particle
  • D. None of these

41. Atomic number of an element is represented by:

  • A. A
  • B. Z
  • C. W
  • D. X

42. Number of protons in an atom is called:

  • A. Atomic Weight
  • B. Atomic Mass
  • C. Atomic Number
  • D. Atomic Radius

43. Sum of protons and Neutrons in an atom is called:

  • A. Atomic Number
  • B. Mass Number
  • C. Shell Number
  • D. None of these

44. Mass number is represented by:

  • A. Z
  • B. A
  • C. B
  • D. m

45. An atom has mass number 16 and atomic number is 8. How many neutrons are in it?

  • A. 8
  • B. 18
  • C. 10
  • D. 16

46. Formula for calculations of neutrons in an atom is:

  • A. N = Z – A
  • B. N = A – Z
  • C. Z = N + A
  • D. A = Z – N

47. The mass of an atom of an element relative to the mass of light isotope of carbon taken as 12 is called:

  • A. Relative atomic Mass
  • B. Molecular Mass
  • C. Consecutive Mass
  • D. Accurate Mass

48. 1 amu is equal to:

  • A. 1.67377 × 10⁻²⁷Kg
  • B. 6.02 × 10⁻²⁴Kg
  • C. 1.66 × 10²³g
  • D. 1.008 g

49. Atomic mass of sulphur is.

  • A. 31.972 amu
  • B. 31.92 g
  • C. 31.92 Kg
  • D. All of these

50. What will be the relative atomic mass of nitrogen given the abundances of its two isotopes, ¹⁴N and ¹⁵N are 99.64 and 0.35 respectively?

  • A. 14.0210
  • B. 14.0021
  • C. 14.2100
  • D. 14.1200

51. How many elements are in the valence shell of noble gases?

  • A. 4
  • B. 6
  • C. 7
  • D. 8

52. The ability of an atom to get two electrons in valence shell is called:

  • A. Bonding rule
  • B. Octet rule
  • C. Duplet rule
  • D. Antibonding rule

53. Which element is capable of forming all the three types of bonds; covalent, coordinate covalent and ionic?

  • A. Carbon
  • B. Oxygen
  • C. Magnesium
  • D. Silicon

54. Which of the following bonds is expected to be the weakest?

  • A. C-C
  • B. I-I
  • C. O-O
  • D. F-F

55. Electronic configuration of chlorine (Cl) is:

  • A. 2, 8, 8
  • B. 2, 8, 7
  • C. 2, 8, 2
  • D. 2, 8, 18

56. The chemical bond which is formed by mutual sharing of electrons is called:

  • A. Ionic bond
  • B. Covalent bond
  • C. Dative bond
  • D. Intermolecular forces

57. Identify the compound that has double covalent bond.

  • A. H₂O
  • B. C₂H₄
  • C. C₂H₆
  • D. C₂H₂

58. Which of the following has polar covalent bond?

  • A. CO₂
  • B. H₂O
  • C. CH₄
  • D. O₂

59. Example of single covalent bond is:

  • A. H₂O
  • B. Cl₂
  • C. NH₃
  • D. All of these

60. Identify the property of metals:

  • A. Shows good metallic luster
  • B. Have high melting and boiling point
  • C. Good conductors of Heat
  • D. All of these

61. What is the most common oxidation state of alkali metals?

  • A. +1
  • B. +2
  • C. +3
  • D. +4

62. What is the nature of bonding in metals?

  • A. Ionic bonding
  • B. Covalent bonding
  • C. Metallic bonding
  • D. Vander waals forces

63. Metals are good conductor of heat and electricity due to:

  • A. Free electrons
  • B. Brittleness
  • C. Ductility
  • D. Malleability

64. Which metal has the lowest melting point?

  • A. Li
  • B. Na
  • C. K
  • D. Rb

65. Which among the following has a double covalent bond?

  • A. Ethane
  • B. Methane
  • C. Ethylene
  • D. Acetylene

66. Metals have tendency to:

  • A. To lose electrons
  • B. To gain electrons
  • C. Share electrons
  • D. None of these

67. Which one of the following is more electrophoretic metal?

  • A. Li
  • B. Na
  • C. Ca
  • D. Mg

68. Identify the gas that is produced when aluminium reacts with mineral acids.

  • A. O₂
  • B. CO₂
  • C. N₂
  • D. H₂

69. Metals forms ion:

  • A. Cation
  • B. Anion
  • C. Both A and B
  • D. None of these

70. Identify the most electronegative element of the periodic table.

  • A. F
  • B. Cl
  • C. O
  • D. N

71. Which one of the following has weakest force of attraction?

  • A. Covalent bond
  • B. Metallic bond
  • C. Ionic bond
  • D. Hydrogen bond

72. Melting and boiling points of a substance depends on:

  • A. Ionic bond
  • B. Covalent bond
  • C. Metallic bond
  • D. Inter-molecular forces

73. The attractive force between the molecules of water is called:

  • A. Dipole-dipole forces
  • B. Hydrogen bonding
  • C. Instantaneous dipole – induce
  • D. None of these

74. Which one of the following contains Dipole – dipole forces?

  • A. H₂
  • B. O₂
  • C. N₂
  • D. HCl

75. Why is H₂O a liquid while H₂S is a gas?

  • A. water is polar compound
  • B. H₂O molecule is easily freeze
  • C. atomic size of oxygen is smaller
  • D. forces of attraction between H₂O molecules are stronger than H₂S

76. O₃ is the chemical formula of:

  • A. Oxygen molecule
  • B. Ozone
  • C. Oxide
  • D. Oxytocin

77. Ionic compounds are represented by:

  • A. Molecular formula
  • B. Symbols
  • C. Formula unit
  • D. None of these

78. Chemical formula of methane natural gas is:

  • A. CH₄
  • B. C₂H₆
  • C. C₂H₂
  • D. C₂H₄

79. Which one of the following is NOT covalent compound?

  • A. HCl
  • B. HF
  • C. PH₃
  • D. CaCl₂

80. Empirical formula of calcium fluoride is:

  • A. CaF₂
  • B. Ca₂F₂
  • C. CaF₃
  • D. CaF

81. Which of the following is indicated by empirical formula?

  • A. Actual number of compound
  • B. The simplest ratio between atoms
  • C. The minimum ratio between the ions
  • D. None of these

82. The molecular formula of benzene is:

  • A. CH
  • B. C₆H₆
  • C. C₃H₃
  • D. C₅H₅

83. The formula of Aluminum nitride is:

  • A. AlO
  • B. Al₂N₃
  • C. Al₃N₂
  • D. Al₄N₂

84. Calcium carries charge:

  • A. 2+
  • B. 2-
  • C. 1-
  • D. 1+

85. Which is the correct formula of calcium phosphide?

  • A. CaP
  • B. CaP₂
  • C. CaP₃
  • D. Ca₃P₂

86. The molecular formula of glucose is:

  • A. CH₂
  • B. C₆H₁₂O₆
  • C. CHO₂
  • D. CHO

87. Empirical formula of benzene is CH and its molecular formula is:

  • A. C₂H₂
  • B. C₃H₃
  • C. C₆H₆
  • D. C₈H₈

88. Molecule and empirical formula of sand is:

  • A. SiO₂
  • B. Si₂O₂
  • C. Si₂O₄
  • D. SiO

89. Ca(SO₄)₂ is the formula of calcium sulphate. How many sulphur atoms are in it?

  • A. 1
  • B. 2
  • C. 8
  • D. 4

90. How many total atom are in Ca(OH)₂?

  • A. 2
  • B. 3
  • C. 4
  • D. 5

91. Structural formula of 2-hexene is… What will be its empirical formula?

  • A. C₂H₂
  • B. CH
  • C. C₆H₁₂
  • D. CH₂

92. 1 mole of water has number of water molecules:

  • A. 24 g
  • B. 1.66 × 10²²
  • C. 6.022 × 10²³
  • D. 18 g

93. Avogadro’s number was introduced by:

  • A. Italian scientist
  • B. American scientist
  • C. German scientist
  • D. Pakistani scientist

94. How many atoms are present in one gram of H₂O?

  • A. 1.002 × 10²³ atoms
  • B. 6.022 × 10²³ atoms
  • C. 0.334 × 10²³ atoms
  • D. 2.004 × 10²³ atoms

95. The quantity of a substance containing Avogadro’s number of particles (Nₐ) is called:

  • A. Mole
  • B. Avogadro’s number
  • C. Molecular formula
  • D. All of these

96. The mass of one mole of a substance is called:

  • A. Molar mass
  • B. Formula mass
  • C. Molecular mass
  • D. None of these

97. A mole of H₂SO₄ contains molecules:

  • A. 6.02 × 10⁻²³
  • B. 6.02 × 10²³
  • C. 6.022 × 10⁻²⁴
  • D. 6.022 × 10²⁴

98. The substances which react to give a chemical change are called:

  • A. Products
  • B. Reactants
  • C. Ingredients
  • D. None of these

99. One mole of calcium carbonate is equal to:

  • A. 100 g
  • B. 10 g
  • C. 110 g
  • D. 80 g

100. Molar mass of C₆H₁₂O₆ is:

  • A. 180
  • B. 98
  • C. 170
  • D. 160

101. In which form the energy is stored in a molecule?

  • A. Chemical energy
  • B. Heat energy
  • C. Elastic potential
  • D. Mechanical energy

102. Which of the following best defines a system in thermodynamics?

  • A. The entire Universe
  • B. The part of Universe being studied
  • C. The container holding a reaction
  • D. The laboratory where experiments are performed

103. The energy which is released when bond is formed and absorbed when it is broken is called:

  • A. Chemical energy
  • B. Heat energy
  • C. Internal energy
  • D. Kinetic energy

104. A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called:

  • A. Exothermic reaction
  • B. Endothermic reaction
  • C. Burning
  • D. Decomposition reaction

105. The total heat content of a body is called:

  • A. Enthalpy
  • B. System
  • C. Surrounding
  • D. All of these

106. Under which conditions the standard enthalpy is measured?

  • A. 0°C and 1 atm
  • B. 25°C and 1 atm
  • C. 0°C and 25 atm
  • D. 1°C and 25 atm

107. Which of the following is a unit of enthalpy?

  • A. J/s
  • B. mol/L
  • C. KJ/mol
  • D. L/mol

108. Which theory explains how reaction occurs based on collisions between particles?

  • A. Atomic theory
  • B. Collision theory
  • C. Molecular theory
  • D. Kinetic theory

109. Which of the following factors does not effects the rate of chemical reactions?

  • A. Temperature
  • B. Catalyst
  • C. Surface area
  • D. Composition of container

110. A catalyst does what to the activation energy of reactions?

  • A. Increases it
  • B. Decreases it
  • C. Has no effect
  • D. None of these

111. In a chemical reaction the substance that is used up is called:

  • A. Product
  • B. Catalyst
  • C. Limiting reactant
  • D. Solvent

112. During glycolysis which molecule breaks?

  • A. Alcohol
  • B. Protein
  • C. Glucose
  • D. Lactic acid

113. During glycolysis one molecule of glucose splits into:

  • A. 2 molecule of pyruvate
  • B. CO₂ and oxygen
  • C. Oxygen and water
  • D. None of these

114. The primary storage form of glucose is:

  • A. Glycogen
  • B. Glycoside
  • C. Nucleic acids
  • D. All of these

115. In reversible reaction what does the double arrow (⇌) indicates?

  • A. The reaction is exothermic
  • B. The reaction is endothermic
  • C. Reaction can proceed in both directions
  • D. The reaction is catalyzed

116. Formation of ammonia in closed system is an example of:

  • A. Endothermic process
  • B. Reversible reaction
  • C. Irreversible reaction
  • D. All of these

117. Chemical formula of copper sulphate pentahydrate is:

  • A. CuSO₄.5H₂O
  • B. CuSO₄
  • C. CuSO₄.2H₂O
  • D. 2H₂O

118. Colour of copper sulphate pentahydrate is:

  • A. Red
  • B. White
  • C. Blue
  • D. Yellow

119. Colour of anhydrous CuSO₄ is:

  • A. Blue
  • B. White
  • C. Red
  • D. Yellow

120. The colour of NO₂ gas is:

  • A. Brown
  • B. Black
  • C. White
  • D. Green

121. When a reaction will become a reversible one?

  • A. If the activation energy of the forward reaction is comparable to that of backward reaction
  • B. If the activation energy… is higher than… backward…
  • C. If the activation energy… is lower than… backward…
  • D. If the enthalpy change… is zero

122. The reaction in which products recombine to form reactants are called:

  • A. Irreversible reaction
  • B. Reversible reaction
  • C. Forward reaction
  • D. None of these

123. What happens with following reaction when pressure is increased? N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃

  • A. Move in forward direction
  • B. Move in backward direction
  • C. No change
  • D. None of these

124. What is true about reversible reaction?

  • A. It never goes to completion
  • B. Burning of coal is reversible reaction
  • C. Rate of reaction does not effected by temperature
  • D. None of these

125. Which of the following is brown?

  • A. N₂O₄
  • B. NO₂
  • C. NH₃
  • D. N₂

126. The reversible reaction is represented by:

  • A.
  • B. =
  • C.
  • D.

127. Dynamic equilibrium establishes when:

  • A. Rate of forward is greater than reverse…
  • B. Rate of forward and reverse reactions become equal
  • C. System is opened
  • D. All of these

128. A closed system is essential for establishing:

  • A. Static equilibrium
  • B. Dynamic equilibrium
  • C. No equilibrium
  • D. Rapid reaction

129. An equilibrium is reached when:

  • A. All reactants are consumed
  • B. All products are consumed
  • C. The rate of forward and rate of reverse reaction become equal
  • D. None of these

130. Identify the oxide that is not basic in nature?

  • A. CaO
  • B. KOH
  • C. MgO
  • D. SO₃

131. A natural source of tartaric acid is:

  • A. Amla
  • B. Tamarind
  • C. Guava
  • D. Orange

132. Which acid is not used as a food or mixed with food?

  • A. Tartaric acid
  • B. Ascorbic acid
  • C. Citric acid
  • D. Formic acid

133. According to Arrhenius acid is a substance which dissociates in water and give:

  • A. H⁺
  • B. H₃O
  • C. Cl
  • D. O₃

134. According to Arrhenius base dissociate in water to give.

  • A. H⁺
  • B. OH⁻
  • C. A and b both
  • D. None of these

135. Example of arrhenius acid is:

  • A. HNO₃
  • B. H₂SO₄
  • C. HCN
  • D. All of these

136. Examples of weak bases are:

  • A. Potassium Hydroxide
  • B. Ammonium hydroxide
  • C. Aluminum hydroxide
  • D. Both B and C

137. According to Bronsted concept acid.

  • A. Donate proton (H⁺)
  • B. Accept Proton
  • C. Both a and b
  • D. None of these

138. The gas produced by reaction of acid and base is.

  • A. H₂
  • B. Cl₂
  • C. N₂
  • D. O₂

139. The formula of sodium carbonate is:

  • A. NaOH
  • B. NaHCO₃
  • C. Na₂CO₃
  • D. NaOHCO₃

140. The formula of potassium carbonate is:

  • A. KHCO₃
  • B. KOHCO₃
  • C. KOH
  • D. K₂CO₃

141. Salt and water produce when acid reacts with.

  • A. Base
  • B. Water
  • C. Glucose
  • D. Protein

142. Which one of the following base is insoluble in water?

  • A. Ca(OH)₂
  • B. NaOH
  • C. KOH
  • D. Ca(OH)₂

143. What do bases react with to form ammonia gas?

  • A. Water
  • B. Acids
  • C. Ammonium
  • D. Mineral acid

144. Which one of the following is the base of modern periodic table?

  • A. Atomic number
  • B. Ionization energy
  • C. Atomic Mass
  • D. Atomic radius

145. Horizontal row of the periodic table is called:

  • A. Group
  • B. Period
  • C. Column
  • D. None of these

146. In which period and group will you place the element which is an important part of the solar cell?

  • A. Third period and 14th group
  • B. Third period and 14th group
  • C. Third period and 16th group
  • D. None of these

147. Which element has the highest melting point?

  • A. Na
  • B. K
  • C. Rb
  • D. Cs

148. 2nd and 3rd period called:

  • A. Short
  • B. Normal
  • C. Long
  • D. Very long

149. Number of elements in very long periods are:

  • A. 32
  • B. 34
  • C. 36
  • D. 38

150. Transition element belongs to groups:

  • A. 7 to 8
  • B. 3 to 12
  • C. 12 to 18
  • D. 7 to 18

151. Who discovered the atomic number?

  • A. Mendeleev
  • B. Moseley
  • C. Bohr
  • D. Dalton

152. What is trend in the reactivity of alkali metals?

  • A. Reactivity decrease in down the group
  • B. Reactivity increases down the group
  • C. Reactivity remains same
  • D. None of these

153. What is the nature of group-II metal oxide?

  • A. Acidic
  • B. Basic
  • C. Neutral
  • D. Amphoteric

154. Group of halogen family is:

  • A. 7
  • B. 17
  • C. 20
  • D. 24

155. Identify the element that is larger in size among the following:

  • A. Li
  • B. Na
  • C. K
  • D. H

156. The tendency of an element to lose electron is called:

  • A. Electron affinity
  • B. Electronegativity
  • C. Electropositivity
  • D. Ionization energy

157. Which is the softest metal?

  • A. Na
  • B. Ca
  • C. Al
  • D. Zn

158. Outmost shell electronic configuration of Halogens is:

  • A. ns²np⁵
  • B. ns²np²
  • C. ns²np³
  • D. ns²np⁴

159. Which oxide is the most basic oxide?

  • A. Na₂O
  • B. Li₂O
  • C. MgO
  • D. CO

160. Which group elements are the most reactive elements?

  • A. Transition metal group
  • B. First group
  • C. Second group
  • D. Third group

161. All the halogens exist as:

  • A. Monoatomic molecules
  • B. Diatomic molecules
  • C. Triatomic molecules
  • D. Polyatomic molecules

162. The gain of electron is called:

  • A. Oxidation
  • B. Reduction
  • C. Hydrolysis
  • D. Galvanizing

163. Correct order of oxidizing power of halogens is:

  • A. Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂
  • B. Cl₂ > I₂ > Br₂
  • C. I₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂
  • D. Br₂ > Cl₂ > I₂

164. Which one of the following is yellowish green gas?

  • A. F₂
  • B. Cl₂
  • C. Br₂
  • D. I₂

165. The element present at the centre of the modern periodic table from group 3 to group 12 are called:

  • A. Transition elements
  • B. Halogens
  • C. Noble metals
  • D. Alkali metals

166. Which one of the following transition metal is used as catalyst for preparation of ammonia?

  • A. Ni
  • B. N₂O₅
  • C. Fe
  • D. Cu

167. Hydrogenation of oil is carried out in the presence of:

  • A. Ni
  • B. Co
  • C. V₂O₅
  • D. Fe

168. Outermost shell electronic configuration of noble gases is:

  • A. s²p⁶
  • B. s²p⁵
  • C. s²p⁴
  • D. s²p³

169. Elements of group 18 are:

  • A. Noble metals
  • B. Noble non-metals
  • C. Alkali metals
  • D. None of these

170. Identify the noble gas that has 2 electrons in their valence shell:

  • A. He
  • B. Ne
  • C. Ar
  • D. Sr

171. All noble gases are:

  • A. Monoatomic
  • B. Diatomic
  • C. Triatomic
  • D. Polyatomic

172. The branch of chemistry which deals with the study of chemicals and other metal pollutants in the environment is called:

  • A. Environmental chemistry
  • B. Inorganic chemistry
  • C. Organic chemistry
  • D. Biochemistry

173. Blanket of air around the Earth is called:

  • A. Atmosphere
  • B. Hydrosphere
  • C. Lithosphere
  • D. Biosphere

174. Percentage of nitrogen in atmosphere is:

  • A. 21
  • B. 78
  • C. 0.04
  • D. 15

175. Identify the major constituents of atmosphere:

  • A. N₂, CO₂
  • B. O₂, CO₂
  • C. N₂, O₂
  • D. He, O₂

176. The percentage of oxygen in atmosphere is:

  • A. 78%
  • B. 21%
  • C. 25%
  • D. 50%

177. The substances which cause air Pollution are called:

  • A. Destructive elements
  • B. Pollutants
  • C. Contaminants
  • D. Carbohydrates

178. Concentration of pollutants is expressed in:

  • A. pm
  • B. ppm
  • C. mm
  • D. nm

179. Indicate the source of sulphur which is responsible for the presence of oxides of sulphur in the atmosphere.

  • A. Waste gases from digestion of vegetation
  • B. Decomposition of animals
  • C. Combustion of fossil fuels
  • D. Photochemical smog

180. Why is smog not felt in summer?

  • A. Because fog is not present in summer
  • B. Because due to heat… smoke rises up
  • C. smoke and fog cannot mix…
  • D. less fossil fuels are burnt…

181. Acid rain makes soil:

  • A. More acidic
  • B. Basic
  • C. Neutral
  • D. None of these

182. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

  • A. O₂
  • B. N₂
  • C. CO₂
  • D. Cl₂

183. Chemical used to neutralized acidic soil is:

  • A. Soda lime
  • B. Soda ash
  • C. Caustic Soda
  • D. Washing Soda

184. In which area there is a greater possibility of acid rain?

  • A. Around village
  • B. Around big cities
  • C. Around industrial area
  • D. Around waterbodies

185. Which gases contribute towards the formation of acid rain?

  • A. Oxides of carbon
  • B. Oxides of sulphur
  • C. Oxides of nitrogen
  • D. Both the oxides of nitrogen and sulphur

186. Which of the following is acid rain?

  • A. NOₓ
  • B. SOₓ
  • C. CO₂
  • D. All of these

187. The essential element present in organic compounds is:

  • A. Oxygen
  • B. Nitrogen
  • C. Carbon
  • D. Hydrogen

188. Which one of the following is saturated compound?

  • A. C₂H₆
  • B. CH₃Cl
  • C. CH₃OH
  • D. NH₃

189. The simplest alkane is:

  • A. Methane
  • B. Ethane
  • C. Propane
  • D. Butane

190. Which other atom is almost always present along with carbon atom in all organic compounds?

  • A. Oxygen
  • B. Nitrogen
  • C. Hydrogen
  • D. Halogen

191. Identify the parent hydrocarbon:

  • A. C₂H₂
  • B. C₂H₄
  • C. CH₄
  • D. C₂H₆

192. Which part of IUPAC system tells us about class of organic compound?

  • A. Root
  • B. Suffix
  • C. Prefix
  • D. All of these

193. According to Bronsted-Lowry, an example of Base is:

  • A. OH⁻
  • B. CN⁻
  • C. Cl⁻
  • D. All of these

194. Which one of the following does not react with chemical reagents like KMnO₄?

  • A. Alkane
  • B. Alkene
  • C. Alkyne
  • D. None of these

195. Elements of group 18 are:

  • A. Noble gases
  • B. Actinides
  • C. Alkali metals
  • D. None of these

196. The catalyst used for reduction of alkene and alkyne is:

  • A. Fe
  • B. P
  • C. Ni
  • D. C

197. The word paraffin’s mean:

  • A. High affinity
  • B. Little affinity
  • C. Moderate affinity
  • D. None of these

198. Alkanes react with excess oxygen to produce:

  • A. CO₂ and H₂
  • B. CO₂ and H₂O
  • C. CO and H₂O
  • D. CO and H₂

199. Replacement of hydrogen of Alkane by an atom or a group of atoms are called:

  • A. Addition reaction
  • B. Substitution reaction
  • C. Sublimation
  • D. Decomposition

200. Which product will be formed when ethyl bromide (CH₃CH₂Br) is treated with Zn/HCl?

  • A. CH₄
  • B. CH₃-CH₃
  • C. CH₃-CH₂-CH-CH₃
  • D. CH₃-CH₂-CH₃

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